IT Strategist Exam Practice Questions & Quiz

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BCP investment metrics EA BPR requirements analysis marketing and IT investment
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Included topics (40 questions)

Q1

Which description of BCP is correct?

Answer: A business continuity plan for disasters or failures

BCP stands for Business Continuity Plan and defines how to continue and recover business during emergencies.

Q2

Which description of RTO is correct?

Answer: The target time to restore business after an incident

RTO stands for Recovery Time Objective and represents the target time until recovery.

Q3

Which description of RPO is correct?

Answer: The target point in time before an incident to which data should be recoverable

RPO stands for Recovery Point Objective and indicates how far back data must be restorable.

Q4

Which description of TCO is correct?

Answer: The total cost from introduction through operation and disposal

TCO stands for Total Cost of Ownership and covers the full lifecycle cost of an information system.

Q5

Which description of EA is correct?

Answer: A concept for organizing business, information, systems, and technology across an organization for overall optimization

EA, Enterprise Architecture, systematizes business and systems from the perspective of overall optimization.

Q6

Which description of BPR is correct?

Answer: Fundamentally reviewing and redesigning existing business processes

BPR stands for Business Process Reengineering and radically redesigns organizations and business flows.

Q7

Which description of BI is correct?

Answer: A concept that analyzes accumulated data and uses it for management decision-making

BI stands for Business Intelligence and supports management decisions using data warehouses, data mining, and related methods.

Q8

In BABOK, which description of solution requirements is correct?

Answer: Requirements describing characteristics of a solution that satisfy business and stakeholder requirements

Solution requirements are divided into functional and non-functional requirement subcategories.

Q9

Which description of MoSCoW analysis is correct?

Answer: A prioritization method that classifies requirements into Must, Should, Could, and Won't

MoSCoW analysis organizes requirement priorities and helps define implementation scope and negotiation points.

Q10

In PPM, which business is positioned as a funding source?

Answer: Cash cow

In PPM, a business with low growth and high market share is called a cash cow and is treated as a funding source.

Q11

Which set is included in Five Forces analysis?

Answer: New entrants, rivalry, substitutes, suppliers, and buyers

Five Forces analysis is a framework for analyzing industry structure and competitive environment.

Q12

Which description of TOB is correct?

Answer: Takeover bid

TOB stands for Takeover Bid and means a public tender offer for shares.

Q13

Which perspectives are generally included in the Balanced Scorecard, BSC?

Answer: Financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth

BSC manages strategy not only from the financial perspective but also from customer, internal process, and learning and growth perspectives.

Q14

What is the purpose of value chain analysis?

Answer: To view corporate activities as a chain of value creation and analyze sources of competitive advantage

Value chain analysis examines where value is created through primary and support activities.

Q15

Which description of CRM is correct?

Answer: A concept for managing and strengthening customer relationships using customer information and touchpoints

CRM stands for Customer Relationship Management and aims to improve revenue through customer understanding and relationship strengthening.

Q16

Which description of SCM is correct?

Answer: A concept for optimizing the supply chain from procurement through production, logistics, and sales

SCM stands for Supply Chain Management and aims to improve and optimize the entire supply chain.

Q17

Which description of IT investment portfolio management is correct?

Answer: Managing multiple IT investments as a portfolio based on risk, effect, strategic fit, and related factors

In the IT strategist area, it is important to manage not only individual projects but also the overall investment portfolio against strategic objectives.

Q18

When comparing IT investment proposals, which metric discounts future cash flows to present value and compares them with the investment amount?

Answer: NPV

NPV, Net Present Value, evaluates investment value by discounting future cash flows to present value and subtracting the initial investment and related costs.

Q19

For strategic management of a new service, you first define CSFs and then design KPIs to observe progress. Which relationship between CSF and KPI is appropriate?

Answer: CSFs are critical success factors, and KPIs are indicators used to measure their progress or achievement

A CSF is a factor critical to achieving a strategic objective. KPIs are designed as quantitative indicators to determine whether CSFs are being achieved.

Q20

When using SWOT analysis for business strategy, which direction uses internal strengths to capture external opportunities?

Answer: An aggressive growth strategy combining strengths and opportunities

In SWOT cross-analysis, combining strengths and opportunities leads to an aggressive strategy that uses competitive advantages to capture growth opportunities.

Q21

Which description best explains IT governance?

Answer: A mechanism for directing and controlling IT in line with management policy to ensure value creation, risk management, and accountability

IT governance controls IT investment and IT risk from a management perspective and continuously verifies whether IT contributes to business value.

Q22

When renewing a core business system, a company considers building business logic tied to competitive advantage in-house while using SaaS for generic peripheral functions. Which viewpoint is being emphasized?

Answer: Separating core competencies from areas suitable for external services

Make-or-buy decisions separate strategically important differentiating areas from standardized areas that can use SaaS or external services.

Q23

To promote data-driven management, a company wants to align different customer IDs and sales definitions across departments and enable consistent data use. Which initiative should be emphasized first?

Answer: Establish data governance by clarifying data definitions, ownership, and data quality rules

Data utilization requires not only tools but also data governance that defines meanings, ownership, quality criteria, and change management.

Q24

Which option is most appropriate as a DX strategy?

Answer: Using digital technology and data to transform customer value and the business model itself

DX is more than digitization. It uses data and digital technology to transform customer value, operations, organizations, and business models.

Q25

In a subscription business for existing customers, churn is increasing. Which analysis should an IT strategist prioritize first?

Answer: Link usage, inquiries, and churn reasons by customer segment to identify drivers of attrition

In a subscription model, reducing churn directly affects LTV and profitability. The first step is to connect data and identify which segments are leaving and why.

Q26

When selecting multiple IT investment initiatives, you want to see both alignment with business strategy and risk. Which management approach is most appropriate?

Answer: Manage them as an IT portfolio, comparing strategic contribution, expected benefits, risk, and investment size

IT portfolio management compares initiatives from an enterprise optimization perspective, allocating resources based on strategic contribution, benefits, risks, and constraints.

Q27

Which viewpoint is most appropriate for judging whether a PoC for a new digital service has succeeded?

Answer: Judge the results against predefined hypotheses, evaluation metrics, and conditions for the next decision

A PoC is not merely a technical experiment; it validates business hypotheses and feasibility for the next investment decision. Metrics and exit criteria should be defined in advance.

Q28

For a plan to migrate a core system to the cloud, which investment effect should be presented to executives?

Answer: Effects tied to business goals, such as cost, agility, availability, security, and operational workload

Cloud migration investment decisions should show more than technical replacement: contribution to business goals, TCO, risks, and changes in operations.

Q29

Before contracting an external SaaS for company-wide use, what should be checked most carefully?

Answer: Compare functional fit, SLA, data protection, audit support, and exit or migration terms with business requirements

SaaS selection must verify not only functional fit but also service levels, security, data handling, auditability, and future migration options.

Q30

When designing an SLA for an IT service, which agreement with user departments is most appropriate?

Answer: Define measurable availability, response time, recovery targets, and support hours based on business impact

An SLA agrees on business-required service levels using measurable indicators. It avoids excessive quality and vague wording while balancing cost.

Q31

When creating a policy for business use of generative AI, which initial response is most appropriate?

Answer: Define rules for use cases, prohibited inputs, output verification responsibility, and handling of copyright and confidential information

Business use of generative AI requires rules for scope, confidential information, output verification, intellectual property, and responsibility to balance value creation and risk control.

Q32

In a legacy system renewal, users request that every current function be reproduced exactly. Which response is most appropriate for an IT strategist?

Answer: Evaluate business value, usage frequency, maintenance cost, and risk to identify functions to retire, standardize, or redesign

Renewal should not merely copy the current system; it should identify and redesign necessary functions to reform operations, improve maintainability, and reduce risk.

Q33

In building a data utilization platform, different KPI definitions by department are causing confusion in executive meetings. What is the most appropriate measure?

Answer: Standardize KPI definitions, formulas, data sources, and owners using a data catalog or similar mechanism

Enterprise KPI use requires standardizing meanings, formulas, data sources, owners, and change management.

Q34

What is the most appropriate purpose of defining withdrawal criteria for a new business during the planning stage?

Answer: Objectify decisions to continue, scale, or withdraw, avoiding expanding losses and inertia

New businesses are uncertain, so evaluation timing and criteria should be defined in advance to decide continuation or withdrawal based on learning.

Q35

In a system planning initiative, business departments submit many requests. Which prioritization approach is most appropriate?

Answer: Classify requests by contribution to business goals, legal or risk response, user value, and implementation difficulty

System planning prioritizes by combining business value, mandatory response, risk, cost, and difficulty.

Q36

What is the most appropriate purpose of creating a customer journey map to improve a customer-facing mobile app?

Answer: Visualize customer actions, emotions, and pain points at each touchpoint to identify experiences to improve

A customer journey map organizes the end-to-end customer experience from the customer's perspective to find issues and opportunities.

Q37

Which KPI is most appropriate for transforming an information systems department from a cost center into a business-contributing function?

Answer: Measure shorter lead time for business initiatives, contribution to revenue or customer satisfaction, and operational efficiency gains

Business contribution should be measured not only by cost reduction but also by business speed, revenue opportunities, customer value, and productivity.

Q38

What is the most appropriate purpose of creating an RFP for vendor selection?

Answer: Clarify requirements, assumptions, and evaluation criteria so multiple proposals can be compared fairly

An RFP states requirements, scope, constraints, and evaluation viewpoints so vendor proposals can be compared.

Q39

Which description of evaluating IT investment using NPV is most appropriate?

Answer: Discount future cash flows to present value and compare them with the initial investment to evaluate value

NPV evaluates economic value by discounting future benefits and cost reductions to present value and comparing them with the initial investment.

Q40

In an enterprise DX program, departments are introducing locally optimized tools independently. What should an IT strategist do?

Answer: Establish enterprise architecture, data integration policy, common platforms, and investment criteria to integrate departmental initiatives

Enterprise DX should leverage departmental experiments while establishing architecture, data policy, common platforms, and investment governance to prevent duplication and fragmentation.

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