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Which description of WBS is correct?
Answer: A hierarchical breakdown structure of project work
WBS stands for Work Breakdown Structure and decomposes a project into hierarchical work units.
Which description of a project scope statement is correct?
Answer: It describes deliverables, acceptance criteria, scope, constraints, assumptions, and related items
A project scope statement becomes a basis for creating the WBS and scope baseline.
In EVM, what does a CPI below 1 mean?
Answer: Cost efficiency is poor and the project tends toward cost overrun
CPI stands for Cost Performance Index. A value below 1 means actual cost is high relative to earned value.
Which description of qualitative risk analysis is correct?
Answer: Evaluating risk priority based on probability and impact
Qualitative risk analysis evaluates probability and impact to determine response priorities.
Which description of contingency reserve is correct?
Answer: Reserve budget or time prepared for identified risks that may occur
Contingency reserve is included in the plan as a response to risks that have been identified in advance.
Which description of critical chain is correct?
Answer: A concept that considers resource constraints and conflicts in addition to the critical path
Critical chain manages the schedule while considering not only task order but also resource constraints.
Which description of OBS is correct?
Answer: An organization chart showing which organization is responsible for work decomposed in the WBS
OBS stands for Organization Breakdown Structure and maps work to organizational responsibility.
In a fixed-price contract, which side generally bears greater risk?
Answer: The supplier side
In a fixed-price contract, if the development scale exceeds assumptions, it is difficult for the supplier to charge additional costs, so supplier risk is greater.
Which description of a risk register is correct?
Answer: A document that records identified risks and updates analysis and response plans
A risk register is created during risk identification and updated with analysis and response planning results.
Who is generally responsible for maintaining project governance?
Answer: The project sponsor or project steering committee
Management-level governance that a PM cannot directly control may be handled by a sponsor or steering committee.
Which description of KGI is correct?
Answer: A quantitative indicator of goals an organization or project should achieve
KGI stands for Key Goal Indicator and defines what metric and level indicate goal achievement.
Which description is related to ISO/IEC 25010, SQuaRE?
Answer: A standard that defines quality models and quality characteristics for systems and software
ISO/IEC 25010 defines quality models and quality characteristics used for quality requirements and evaluation.
Which activity is important in stakeholder engagement?
Answer: Identify stakeholders and adjust engagement based on their expectations and influence
In PM, stakeholder identification, analysis, engagement planning, and communication are important.
What is the role of a Change Control Board, CCB?
Answer: Evaluate change requests and decide approval, rejection, or other handling
A CCB manages changes after considering effects on scope, cost, schedule, and other constraints.
What is the purpose of issuing an RFP in procurement management?
Answer: To request proposals from candidate vendors and support supplier selection
RFP stands for Request for Proposal and presents requirements to ask vendors for proposals.
Which is an example of prevention cost in quality cost?
Answer: Costs for reviews and training to prevent defects
Quality costs are often divided into prevention, appraisal, internal failure, and external failure costs.
What should be clarified in a communication plan?
Answer: Who communicates what, when, and by which method
In PM, clarifying recipients, content, frequency, methods, and responsible persons helps prevent misunderstandings.
In EVM (Earned Value Management), which describes EV (Earned Value)?
Answer: The budgeted cost of work that has actually been completed
EV is the budgeted value of completed work. Actual cost is AC and planned value is PV.
When SPI (Schedule Performance Index) is below 1, what does it indicate?
Answer: Progress is behind schedule
SPI = EV/PV; a value below 1 means EV is less than PV, indicating a schedule delay.
When CPI (Cost Performance Index) is above 1, what does it indicate about cost?
Answer: Work is being done more cost-efficiently than budgeted
CPI = EV/AC; above 1 means EV exceeds AC, indicating cost efficiency better than planned.
Which description of the critical path is correct?
Answer: The sequence of activities with no slack that determines the total project duration
The critical path is the longest path with zero float; a delay on it delays the whole project.
Which technique shortens activity duration by adding resources at extra cost?
Answer: Crashing
Crashing adds cost (staff, overtime) to compress duration. Overlapping activities is fast tracking.
Which technique shortens the schedule by performing normally sequential activities in parallel?
Answer: Fast tracking
Fast tracking overlaps activities to save time but increases the risk of rework.
Which is an example of the risk response strategy transfer?
Answer: Buying insurance to move the financial impact to a third party
Transfer shifts the impact to a third party (e.g., insurance, contracts), distinct from avoid, mitigate, and accept.
How is EMV (Expected Monetary Value) calculated in quantitative risk analysis?
Answer: Probability of occurrence multiplied by the monetary impact
EMV is probability times impact; summing EMVs across risks supports decision making.
In a RACI chart, which letter represents the role that does the work?
Answer: R (Responsible)
R performs the work; A is ultimately accountable. RACI keeps a single A per task.
Which document records stakeholder interests, influence, and requirements?
Answer: The stakeholder register
The stakeholder register captures identification and assessment results and informs engagement planning.
Which body reviews change requests to approved baselines and decides to approve or reject them?
Answer: The change control board (CCB)
The CCB formally reviews and decides on change requests, preventing uncontrolled changes.
What is the gradual, uncontrolled expansion of scope without formal change control called?
Answer: Scope creep
Scope creep is uncontrolled growth of scope; the change control process keeps it in check.
Which schedule element marks a significant point and has zero duration?
Answer: A milestone
A milestone has zero duration and marks key completion or approval points.
Which describes the function point method?
Answer: Estimating software size from functional units such as inputs, outputs, and files
Function points measure size by user-visible functionality, making estimates relatively language-independent.
Which review technique is a formal review where participants take defined roles to find defects early?
Answer: Inspection
Inspection is a formal, role-based review highly effective at finding defects.
In a firm fixed-price contract, who primarily bears the cost-overrun risk?
Answer: The seller (vendor)
Because the price is fixed, the seller mainly bears cost-overrun risk in a firm fixed-price contract.
Which correctly distinguishes a risk from an issue?
Answer: A risk is an uncertain future event; an issue is a problem that has already occurred
A risk is an unrealized uncertain event; an issue is a realized problem. A risk that occurs becomes an issue.
Which activity is the buyer formal confirmation and acceptance that deliverables meet requirements?
Answer: Acceptance (sign-off)
Acceptance confirms deliverables meet acceptance criteria and formally receives them, evidencing scope completion.
When a change request affects an approved baseline, what should the project manager do first?
Answer: Assess the impact and submit it for approval through the change control process
A baseline-impacting change must be evaluated for scope, cost, schedule, quality, and risk impacts and then handled through formal change control.
Which engagement strategy is most appropriate for a stakeholder with high power but low interest?
Answer: Keep them satisfied by providing concise, periodic updates on key points
A high-power, low-interest stakeholder should be kept satisfied with concise communication on important matters, without overloading them.
If a vendor deliverable does not meet contractual acceptance criteria, what is the most appropriate project manager response?
Answer: Record the nonconformance against the contract and acceptance criteria and request correction
Procurement control checks deliverables against the contract, SOW, and acceptance criteria; nonconformances should be recorded and corrected.
What is the most appropriate purpose of a quality audit?
Answer: To verify whether quality processes follow defined policies and procedures and identify improvements
A quality audit objectively checks process compliance and effectiveness and identifies corrective actions or improvement opportunities.
Using insurance for a low-probability but high-impact business continuity risk corresponds to which risk response strategy?
Answer: Transfer
Insurance shifts financial impact to a third party, making it a typical risk transfer response for threats.
A generative-AI project is about to reuse a conventional project plan unchanged. What should be done first?
Answer: Tailor the plan for uncertainty, evaluation, data preparation, and iterative validation
The plan should reflect the technology and delivery approach, including evaluation cycles, data quality, guardrails, and change capacity.
Training data may lack accuracy, diversity, and coverage. Which project plan is most appropriate?
Answer: Define quality criteria and validation samples, plus triggers and owners for adding missing data
Make data quality measurable and plan risk responses for both initial preparation and later collection.
A key department head does not support a transformation project. What should be done first?
Answer: Analyze current and desired engagement, concerns, and influence, then plan targeted actions
Make the stakeholder's position and resistance drivers visible, then tailor involvement and benefit communication.
A previous SaaS requirements effort became contentious. Which preparation best prevents recurrence?
Answer: Preassess business fit with users, then validate gaps and responses in a vendor workshop
Share fit-to-standard assumptions and nonnegotiable needs, then jointly decide standardization, process change, or extension.
A risk register says only 'users will resist.' What is the best improvement?
Answer: Separate cause, possible event, and impact, then record indicators, response, and owner
Separating cause, event, and consequence enables specific prevention, warning signs, and contingency action.
A fixed-date legal change is added during development. What is the first appropriate integration-management action?
Answer: Assess cross-project impact and submit needed organization, scope, and schedule changes to formal control
Integrate deadline, dependencies, expertise, budget, and scope impacts, then update approved plans through control.
Development starts on supposedly unaffected areas before legal requirements are final. Which risk needs special management?
Answer: The assumption may fail, causing rework and retesting of early deliverables
Fast tracking may shorten duration at the cost of rework, so assumptions, boundaries, capacity, and stop conditions must be managed.
Each task contains hidden safety, yet early finishes do not advance successors and the project slips. What is the best improvement?
Answer: Aggregate safety into project and feeding buffers and manage their consumption
Critical-chain management pools safety into shared buffers and uses consumption versus remaining work to trigger action.
A new team's development plan contains only technical training. What should be added?
Answer: Development of psychological safety, role collaboration, conflict resolution, and decision making
Team performance requires deliberate growth of trust, collaboration, conflict handling, and mutual support, not just technical skill.
What is the most appropriate way to evaluate a team-development initiative?
Answer: Continuously compare quantitative QCD/rework data with qualitative interview and meeting evidence
Track change with multiple quantitative and qualitative signals, then adjust actions based on behaviors and outcomes.
The system will be complete, but user training and operating procedures are late. What is the right go-live decision approach?
Answer: Evaluate business and operational readiness criteria, not just technical completion, and address gaps
A smooth launch requires readiness across training, staffing, procedures, migration, support, and rollback.
Go-live risk responses are underway. What is needed to determine whether they are effective?
Answer: Track effectiveness indicators, due dates, owners, residual risk, and triggers for further action
Execution is not effectiveness. Reassess residual risk and predefine alternatives when thresholds are exceeded.
Delivery was on time, but adoption is low and expected benefits are absent. What improves project success?
Answer: Define benefit metrics, owners, and timing, then track realization and corrective action after transition
Manage value realization through business KPIs and adoption with accountable owners beyond deliverable completion.
A project combines predictive core migration with agile customer features. Which management approach is appropriate?
Answer: Use fit-for-purpose methods while integrating milestones, dependencies, and change decisions
Hybrid delivery tailors each domain while managing integration points, quality, releases, and risk as one project.
Important nonfunctional requirements are being deferred in iterative development. What should the PM do?
Answer: Put them into acceptance and definition-of-done criteria and plan early risk-based validation
Performance, availability, and security shape architecture early, so define measurable criteria and validation slices.
A similar failure recurs across phases. What is the right lessons-learned practice?
Answer: Capture causes and effective actions continuously and feed them into later plans, checklists, and standards
Lessons should be used continuously, enabling prevention and reuse within the same project, not only after closure.
Reporting of a critical issue was delayed by individual judgment, losing response time. What prevents recurrence?
Answer: Predefine escalation thresholds, paths, and delegates based on impact, time, and authority
Clear criteria incorporating urgency and decision authority enable fast, consistent escalation.
Several projects need the same specialist at the same time, though each standalone plan is feasible. What is appropriate?
Answer: Visualize aggregate demand and priority, then coordinate allocation, timing, and alternatives with portfolio governance
Cross-project resource contention requires portfolio-level prioritization and optimization beyond any single PM.
After a vendor contract ends, the organization may be unable to operate independently. What belongs in the procurement plan?
Answer: Define knowledge-transfer deliverables, training, handover acceptance, access return, and transition support in the contract
Define exit conditions from contracting onward and transfer knowledge and authority deliberately to reduce lock-in and disruption.
Resistance to a new process is strong, and system briefings are not driving adoption. What is appropriate?
Answer: Tailor change rationale, process impacts, and support by role, then improve using adoption metrics and feedback
Change adoption requires addressing role, incentive, and process impacts, measuring behavior, and adapting support.