Fundamental IT Engineer Practice Questions & Quiz

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Included topics (60 questions)

Q1

Which is an appropriate example of supervised learning?

Answer: Learning classification or regression from data with correct labels

Supervised learning trains classification or regression models from data that includes correct labels.

Q2

Which is a representative example of unsupervised learning?

Answer: Clustering

Unsupervised learning finds structure in data without correct labels; clustering is a representative example.

Q3

Which set describes appropriate challenges of AI?

Answer: Bias, explainability, and overfitting

In Fundamental Information Technology Engineer topics, not only AI usage but also bias, explainability, and overfitting are likely to be tested.

Q4

Which description best matches IaaS?

Answer: Providing infrastructure such as virtual servers and storage as a service

IaaS means Infrastructure as a Service. Examples include virtual machines and storage.

Q5

Which description best matches SaaS?

Answer: Using completed applications over a network

SaaS means Software as a Service. Users consume applications as services, such as Google Workspace.

Q6

Which description best matches the cloud shared responsibility model?

Answer: Cloud providers and users share security and operational responsibilities

In cloud services, responsibility is divided between the provider and the user depending on the service model.

Q7

Which description best matches serverless computing, or FaaS?

Answer: Running functions in response to events while abstracting server management

In FaaS, such as AWS Lambda, functions run in response to events and much of the platform management is handled by the service.

Q8

Which statement correctly describes containers compared with virtual machines?

Answer: Containers share the OS kernel and isolate application runtime environments lightweightly

Containers share the host OS kernel and run applications with their dependencies isolated.

Q9

Which description best matches edge computing?

Answer: Processing data close to sensors or devices to reduce latency and traffic

In IoT and similar contexts, processing near devices helps improve real-time behavior and reduce communication volume.

Q10

Which description best matches the zero trust model?

Answer: Do not assume trust inside or outside the network; continuously authenticate, authorize, and verify

Zero trust emphasizes verifying each access rather than relying only on perimeter defense.

Q11

What is binary 1010 converted to decimal?

Answer: 10

Binary 1010 is 8 + 2 = 10. Base conversion is a standard FE topic.

Q12

Which description of logical AND is correct?

Answer: It is true only when both operands are true

AND is true only when both conditions are true. Also understand OR, NOT, and XOR.

Q13

Which condition is required for binary search?

Answer: The target data is sorted

Binary search repeatedly narrows the search range by half and assumes sorted data.

Q14

Which description of a foreign key in a relational database is correct?

Answer: A key that references a primary key or similar key in another table and represents relationships between tables

A foreign key represents a reference relationship between tables and helps maintain referential integrity.

Q15

Which configuration improves availability?

Answer: Using redundancy and failover configurations

Redundancy, failover, monitoring, and backups are effective for improving availability.

Q16

Which mechanism uses part of secondary storage like memory so programs larger than physical memory can run?

Answer: Virtual memory

Virtual memory provides a larger address space by loading required pages into physical memory while using secondary storage.

Q17

Which system does a web browser primarily use to find the destination IP address from a host name in a URL?

Answer: DNS

DNS is a distributed naming system that maps domain and host names to information such as IP addresses.

Q18

A failure occurs during a database transaction. Which operation restores the database to its state before the transaction began?

Answer: ROLLBACK

ROLLBACK cancels uncommitted changes made by a transaction and restores the prior consistent state.

Q19

A sender creates a digital signature by processing a document hash with their private key. What can the recipient verify?

Answer: The sender's authenticity and whether the document was altered

Verification with the sender's public key confirms who signed and whether the document changed after signing.

Q20

A form accepts ages from 18 through 65. Which set efficiently tests the boundaries using boundary value analysis?

Answer: 17, 18, 65, and 66

Boundary value analysis tests each limit and the value immediately outside it to expose boundary-condition defects.

Q21

Which data structure handles data in last-in, first-out (LIFO) order?

Answer: Stack

A stack is a LIFO structure that retrieves the most recently added element first, used for things like call management.

Q22

Which data structure processes data in first-in, first-out (FIFO) order?

Answer: Queue

A queue is a FIFO structure that retrieves the earliest added element first, used for waiting lines.

Q23

In a binary search tree, what condition do all elements in a node left subtree satisfy?

Answer: They are smaller than the node value

In a BST the left subtree holds smaller values and the right subtree larger values, enabling efficient search.

Q24

What is the binary number 1011 in decimal?

Answer: 11

1011 equals 8 + 0 + 2 + 1 = 11; each digit carries a power-of-two weight.

Q25

Which logic operation outputs 1 only when its two inputs differ?

Answer: Exclusive OR (XOR)

XOR outputs 1 when inputs differ and 0 when they match, used for bit toggling and parity.

Q26

Which is a common way computers represent negative integers?

Answer: Two's complement

Two's complement lets addition and subtraction share the same hardware, so it is widely used for signed integers.

Q27

Which feature does TCP have compared with UDP?

Answer: Provides reliable delivery with retransmission control

TCP is connection-oriented with ordering and retransmission for reliability; UDP is connectionless and lightweight.

Q28

Which system translates domain names into IP addresses?

Answer: DNS

DNS resolves names by mapping domain names to and from IP addresses.

Q29

Which protocol automatically assigns IP addresses and settings to devices?

Answer: DHCP

DHCP automatically distributes IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other settings to devices.

Q30

Which describes a private IP address?

Answer: An address usable within an organization that is not globally unique on the internet

Private IPs are used inside an organization and are translated to public addresses by NAT for internet access.

Q31

What is the main purpose of normalizing a relational database?

Answer: To reduce data redundancy and update anomalies

Normalization removes redundancy to prevent update anomalies; denormalization is sometimes used for performance.

Q32

Which property must a primary key in a relational database satisfy?

Answer: It uniquely identifies each row and contains no NULL

A primary key enforces uniqueness and non-NULL (entity integrity) to identify each row.

Q33

Which SQL clause is used to retrieve only the rows that match a condition?

Answer: The WHERE clause

WHERE filters rows by a condition; ORDER BY sorts and GROUP BY groups for aggregation.

Q34

Among the ACID properties, which describes atomicity?

Answer: All operations either complete fully or not at all

Atomicity guarantees all-or-nothing execution (rollback on failure); consistency, isolation, and durability are separate.

Q35

In public-key cryptography, which key does a sender use to encrypt a message for a recipient?

Answer: The recipient public key

With public-key encryption, the sender uses the recipient public key, and only the recipient can decrypt with their private key.

Q36

Which is a property of a cryptographic hash function?

Answer: It is one-way: deriving the input from the output is hard

A hash function is one-way and produces a fixed-length value, used for integrity checks and password storage.

Q37

What does a digital signature primarily verify?

Answer: The signer authenticity and whether the content was altered

A digital signature provides authentication of the signer, integrity (tamper detection), and non-repudiation.

Q38

For two devices connected in series, which describes the system availability?

Answer: It is the product of the individual availabilities

In series, all devices must work, so availability is the product of each; parallel (redundant) systems are higher.

Q39

Which correctly distinguishes a process from a thread?

Answer: Threads share the memory space within the same process

Threads run concurrently sharing memory within a process, while processes have independent memory spaces.

Q40

Which describes black-box testing?

Answer: Verifying based on input/output specifications without regard to internal structure

Black-box testing checks input/output against specifications; examining internal structure is white-box testing.

Q41

What is the worst-case time complexity of linear search over an unsorted array of n elements?

Answer: O(n)

In the worst case, linear search compares all n elements because the target is last or absent, so its time complexity is O(n).

Q42

What is the phenomenon where different keys produce the same hash value in a hash table?

Answer: A collision

A hash collision occurs when different keys map to the same candidate location and is handled with methods such as chaining or open addressing.

Q43

What is the average and worst-case time complexity of merge sort for n elements?

Answer: O(n log n)

Merge sort has about log n levels and merges a total of n elements at each level, giving O(n log n), with additional working storage.

Q44

Which design element is essential for a recursive function to terminate correctly?

Answer: A base case that returns without another recursive call

Recursion needs a base case and argument progress toward it. Without them, calls continue consuming the call stack.

Q45

For IPv4 network 192.0.2.0/24, how many host addresses are normally usable after excluding network and broadcast addresses?

Answer: 254

A /24 leaves 8 host bits, giving 2^8 = 256 addresses. Normally two are reserved for network and broadcast, leaving 254 usable hosts.

Q46

Which component keeps frequently used data in fast storage to bridge the speed gap between CPU and main memory?

Answer: Cache memory

Cache memory is small, fast storage close to the CPU that exploits locality to reduce waiting for main-memory access.

Q47

Which RAID level writes identical data to two disks so data remains available if one disk fails?

Answer: RAID 1

RAID 1 mirrors the same data across disks, improving redundancy, but it is not a substitute for backups.

Q48

What is the state where two transactions each wait for a resource held by the other and cannot proceed?

Answer: Deadlock

Deadlock is circular resource waiting among processes or transactions. Mitigations include consistent lock order, short lock duration, and aborting a detected victim.

Q49

Which synchronization mechanism limits concurrent access to a shared resource and can implement mutual exclusion?

Answer: A semaphore

A semaphore manages shared-resource permits with a counter and waiting mechanism. A value of one can provide mutual exclusion.

Q50

After grouping sales by department, which SQL clause filters groups whose total is at least one million yen?

Answer: HAVING

WHERE filters rows before aggregation, while HAVING filters grouped aggregate results, for example HAVING SUM(amount) >= 1000000.

Q51

What is a common trade-off when adding an index to a relational database?

Answer: Queries may become faster, while writes and storage overhead increase

Indexes can speed lookups and sorting, but INSERT, UPDATE, and DELETE must maintain them and they consume storage, so they should match workload needs.

Q52

What is it called when transaction B reads changes made by transaction A before A commits?

Answer: A dirty read

A dirty read observes uncommitted data. If A later rolls back, B has read a value that never became valid; isolation level controls whether this can occur.

Q53

What is the main purpose of validating a server certificate in HTTPS?

Answer: Authenticate the destination server and reduce impersonation

The client checks certificate trust, host name, validity, and related properties to confirm encrypted communication with the intended server.

Q54

What is a fundamental defense against SQL injection in a web application?

Answer: Use parameterized queries with placeholders

Parameterized queries separate SQL structure from input values, preventing values from being interpreted as commands. Combine them with validation and least privilege.

Q55

Which technique hierarchically decomposes project deliverables and work into manageable units?

Answer: WBS

A Work Breakdown Structure hierarchically decomposes project deliverables and scope, supporting estimation, assignment, and progress control.

Q56

In a PERT network, what is the path whose delay directly delays overall project completion?

Answer: The critical path

The critical path is the activity sequence with zero slack; delaying an activity on it delays the project finish, so it needs close tracking.

Q57

In agile development, which event reviews how the team worked during a sprint and identifies improvements for the next one?

Answer: The retrospective

A retrospective reviews team process, collaboration, and tools and selects concrete improvements for the next sprint.

Q58

If fixed cost is 3,000,000 yen, selling price is 5,000 yen, and variable cost is 2,000 yen per unit, what is the break-even quantity?

Answer: 1,000 units

Contribution margin is 5,000 - 2,000 = 3,000 yen per unit. Break-even quantity is 3,000,000 / 3,000 = 1,000 units.

Q59

Which analysis organizes internal strengths and weaknesses and external opportunities and threats?

Answer: SWOT analysis

SWOT analysis organizes Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats to support strategy and initiative planning.

Q60

What defines agreed service-quality levels such as availability and response time between a service provider and customer?

Answer: An SLA

A Service Level Agreement defines service targets such as availability, response, and support, along with measurement and responsibilities.

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