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Applied Information Technology Quiz

52 questions / 10 random questions

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Included topics (52 questions)

Q1

Which set represents typical morning-exam areas in the Applied Information Technology Engineer Examination?

Answer: Software development, databases, networks, information security, and related areas

Important topics include development processes, databases, networks, security, testing, and project management.

Q2

Which sequence is a typical software development process flow?

Answer: Requirements definition, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance

Software development starts by clarifying requirements, then proceeds through design, implementation, testing, and maintenance.

Q3

Which description best matches a primary key in a database?

Answer: A key used to uniquely identify each row in a table

A primary key uniquely identifies records in a table.

Q4

What is the main purpose of the SQL SELECT statement?

Answer: To search and retrieve data

SELECT is a basic SQL statement used to retrieve data that matches conditions from tables.

Q5

What is the main purpose of database normalization?

Answer: To reduce data redundancy and update anomalies

Normalization reduces duplication and inconsistency, making table structures easier to maintain.

Q6

Which item is not part of the ACID properties of transactions?

Answer: Compressibility

ACID stands for Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, and Durability. Compressibility is not included.

Q7

Which description of COMMIT is correct?

Answer: It finalizes changes made in a transaction

COMMIT finalizes transaction changes. ROLLBACK is used to cancel them.

Q8

What is the main purpose of a database index?

Answer: To improve search performance

An index improves search efficiency, although it can increase update costs during writes.

Q9

Which description of a unique index is correct?

Answer: It guarantees that values in specified columns are not duplicated

A unique index prevents duplicate values in target columns and is closely related to primary key constraints.

Q10

Which description of a clustered index is correct?

Answer: It is built in relation to the physical order of table data

A clustered index is related to the physical storage order of a table.

Q11

What is the main role of IP in TCP/IP?

Answer: To forward packets to destinations using IP addresses

IP operates at the network layer and handles destination identification and packet forwarding.

Q12

Which description of TCP is correct?

Answer: A connection-oriented transport-layer protocol that provides reliability

TCP provides reliable communication using acknowledgments, retransmission control, and related mechanisms.

Q13

Which characteristic generally applies to UDP?

Answer: It is connectionless and lightweight, but does not provide reliability control like TCP

UDP is lightweight connectionless communication. Applications add reliability when needed.

Q14

In the OSI reference model, which layer is mainly handled by routers?

Answer: Network layer

Routers perform routing based on network-layer information such as IP addresses.

Q15

Which description of static routing is correct?

Answer: An administrator manually configures routes

Static routing is simple because it is manually configured, but it becomes harder to manage in large environments.

Q16

Which description of dynamic routing is correct?

Answer: Routers automatically exchange and update routing information

Dynamic routing can update route information in response to network changes and failures.

Q17

Which description of OSPF is correct?

Answer: A link-state protocol that calculates shortest paths based on cost

OSPF is a link-state dynamic routing protocol.

Q18

Which description of RIP is correct?

Answer: A distance-vector protocol that uses hop count

RIP is a distance-vector protocol that uses hop count as its metric.

Q19

Which description of BGP is correct?

Answer: An external routing protocol that handles routing between autonomous systems

BGP is used for inter-AS routing control in large-scale networks such as the internet.

Q20

Which feature of Wi-Fi IEEE 802.11ac was described?

Answer: It uses the 5 GHz band and can achieve high-speed communication with MU-MIMO

IEEE 802.11ac uses the 5 GHz band and can theoretically reach up to 6.93 Gbps using MU-MIMO and wide channels. It is also called Wi-Fi 5.

Q21

Which description of WEP is correct?

Answer: An old wireless LAN security method with many vulnerabilities and not recommended

WEP is an old method with many vulnerabilities, so WPA2 or WPA3 is recommended.

Q22

Which 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi channel combination was given as an example for avoiding interference?

Answer: 1, 6, and 11

In the 2.4 GHz band, channels 1, 6, and 11 are commonly chosen because they overlap less.

Q23

Which set is included in the three major elements of information security?

Answer: Confidentiality, integrity, and availability

The foundation of information security is CIA: confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Q24

Which measure is appropriate against SQL injection?

Answer: Validate input and use parameterized queries

Input validation, parameterized queries, and permission management are effective against SQL injection.

Q25

Which measure is appropriate against XSS?

Answer: Sanitize input data and configure CSP

To prevent malicious script execution in XSS, handle input and output properly and use measures such as CSP.

Q26

Which description best matches the principle of least privilege?

Answer: Grant users and processes only the minimum permissions necessary

The principle of least privilege grants only the minimum necessary permissions to reduce the impact of incidents.

Q27

Which characteristic of a star topology is correct?

Answer: Each device connects to a central hub or switch

A star topology connects devices around a central hub or switch and is common in LANs.

Q28

Which advantage of a mesh topology is correct?

Answer: High redundancy and reliability

A mesh topology can provide multiple paths and high reliability, but cost and management complexity increase.

Q29

Which description best matches high cohesion and low coupling?

Answer: Group related functions together and reduce dependencies between modules

Good module design increases internal relatedness and reduces external dependencies.

Q30

Which backup approach is related to recent ransomware countermeasures?

Answer: Use the 3-2-1 rule and immutable backups

For ransomware countermeasures, multi-generation, separate-media, offsite, and tamper-resistant immutable backups are important.

Q31

Which description of SBOM, Software Bill of Materials, is correct?

Answer: A list of software components and dependencies

An SBOM helps identify libraries and components and supports vulnerability management and supply-chain risk handling.

Q32

Which description of EDR is correct?

Answer: A mechanism to detect, investigate, and respond to suspicious behavior on endpoints

EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response and is used to monitor and respond to behavior on PCs and servers.

Q33

Which description of SIEM is correct?

Answer: A mechanism that aggregates and correlates logs and events to detect anomalies

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management and is used for log analysis and monitoring across multiple systems.

Q34

Which description of CASB is correct?

Answer: A mechanism that visualizes and controls cloud service usage and strengthens security

CASB stands for Cloud Access Security Broker and relates to visibility, control, and protection when using cloud services.

Q35

Which description of AI for Security is correct?

Answer: Using AI to improve security measures such as threat detection and analysis

AI for Security means using AI on the defense side for detection, analysis, response, and related activities.

Q36

Which description of Security for AI is correct?

Answer: Security for protecting AI systems themselves from attacks and misuse

Security for AI addresses risks specific to AI systems, such as protecting models, training data, and inference results.

Q37

Which risk is appropriate when using generative AI?

Answer: Hallucinations, bias, and outdated information may appear

With generative AI, pay attention to misinformation, bias, outdated information, and handling of confidential data; human review is important.

Q38

Which description of memory interleaving is correct?

Answer: Dividing main memory into multiple banks for parallel access to reduce apparent access time

Memory interleaving divides main memory into multiple logical areas and speeds access through parallelism.

Q39

Which description of DMA is correct?

Answer: An I/O device transfers data directly to and from main memory without going through the CPU

DMA stands for Direct Memory Access and transfers data directly between I/O devices and memory while reducing CPU load.

Q40

Which description of the write-through method is correct?

Answer: Main memory is updated at the same time as the cache

Write-through updates both the cache and main memory at the same time.

Q41

Which description of throughput is correct?

Answer: The amount of work that can be processed per unit time

Throughput represents how many jobs or how much work a system can process per unit time.

Q42

In the three-schema architecture, which schema represents the database view seen by users or applications?

Answer: External schema

The external schema corresponds to the view of the database seen by users or applications.

Q43

Which description of an ETL tool is correct?

Answer: It extracts, transforms, and loads data into an analytics platform

ETL stands for Extract, Transform, Load and prepares business data for analysis before loading it into systems such as a data warehouse.

Q44

Which description of NAS is correct?

Answer: File-level storage connected to a LAN and shared by multiple computers

NAS stands for Network Attached Storage and provides file sharing storage over a LAN.

Q45

Which description of NAPT is correct?

Answer: A mechanism that allows multiple devices to share one global IP address

NAPT translates IP addresses and port numbers so multiple devices can share one global IP address.

Q46

At which OSI reference model layer does a repeater mainly operate?

Answer: Physical layer

A repeater operates at Layer 1, the physical layer, and relays signals by reshaping and amplifying them.

Q47

Which description of CSMA/CA is correct?

Answer: A method that senses the carrier and controls transmission to avoid collisions

CSMA/CA stands for Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance and is used for collision avoidance in wireless LANs.

Q48

Which characteristic of a stack is correct?

Answer: It handles data in last-in, first-out order, LIFO

A stack is LIFO, while a queue is FIFO. Algorithms and data structures are fundamental AP topics.

Q49

What is the main purpose of a UML use case diagram?

Answer: To represent relationships between users or external systems and system functions

A use case diagram organizes relationships between actors and the functions provided by a system.

Q50

Which description of an SLA is correct?

Answer: A service level agreed between a service provider and a user

SLA stands for Service Level Agreement and defines agreed service levels such as availability, response time, and support hours.

Q51

Which statement about copyright is correct?

Answer: Programs can be protected as copyrighted works

Programs are protected as copyrighted works. Ideas themselves and algorithmic concepts are different from copyright-protected expression.

Q52

What is the main purpose of incident management in ITIL?

Answer: To restore normal service as quickly as possible

Incident management focuses on reducing the impact of failures or service interruptions and quickly restoring normal service.

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